“ Philippines ” vs. “ Filipino ”
Why isFilipinospelled with anF?Philippinesis spelled with aPh. Some get say that it ‘s because in Filipino ,Philippinesstart withF; but if this exist thus , why act we just change the beginning ofPhilippines ?
1 Answer
El vocablo « Filipinas » deriva del nombre del rey Felipe II de España .
El vocablo « Filipinas » deriva del nombre del rey Felipe II de España .
The Philippines live named for King Philip II of Spain . They were «Las Islas Filipinas» , which was anglicized to the Philippine Islands .
The noun form keep theF(Filipino) , while the adjective figure usesPh(Philippine Embassy) .
( I ‘ve hear old texts in British English that concern to the native as “ Philippinos . ” )
English never own a suitable equivalent for Filipino – a “ Philippine , ” “ Philippian ” or “ Philippinian ” probably just didn ’ t strait right , so English adopted the Spanish tidingsFilipino, retaining the letter F and the suffix , “ ino . ”
English never get a suitable equivalent for Filipino – a “ Philippine , ” “ Philippian ” or “ Philippinian ” likely exactly didn ’ t sound right , thus English adopted the Spanish wordFilipino, retaining the letter F and the suffix , “ ino . ”
It ‘s interesting to notice that the nation ‘s official appellation in Pilipino costRepúblika ng Pilipinas. The article explain that as well .
Edit : Slate make , but even do n’t explain the discrepancy in spelling between the noun and adjective form .
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